Answer: a. WACC = Ke(E/V} + kd(D/V)(1-T)
9.1 = ke(100/160) + 6.4(60/160)(1-0.22)
9.1 = ke(0.625) + 2.4(0.78)
9.1 = 0.625ke + 1.872
9.1-1.872 = 0.625ke
7.228 = 0.625ke
ke = 7.228/0.625
ke = 11.56%
b. WACC = Ke(E/V)
9.1 = ke(100/160)
9.1 = 0.625ke
ke = 9.1/0.625
ke = 14.56%
c-1. WACC = Ke(E/V} + kd(D/V)(1-T)
9.1 = ke(1/3) + 6.4(2/3)(1-0.22)
9.1 = 0.3333ke + 3.328
9.1 - 3.328 = 0.3333ke
5.772 = 0.3333ke
ke = 5.772/0.3333
ke = 17.32%
c-2. 9.1 = ke(1/2) + 6.4(1/2)(1-0.22)
9.1 = 0.5ke + 2.496
9.1 - 2.496 = 0.5ke
6.604 = 0.5ke
ke = 6.604/0.5
ke = 13.21%
c-3. 9.1 = ke (0/0) + kd (0/)
ke = 0%
Explanation:
a. in the a part of the question, the debt-equity ratio was 0.6 ie 60/100. Thus, the value of the firm equals 160. The figures given in the question were substituted in the formula. Cost of equity was not provided, therefore, it becomes the subject of the formula. The variables are defined as follows:
ke = Cost of equity = ?
kd = Cost of debt = 6.4%
E = Value of equity = 100
D = Value of debt = 60
V = Value of the firm ie E + D = 100 + 60 = 160
T = Tax rate = 22% = 0.22
b. In this part of the question, only equity would be considered since we are calculating unlevered cost of equity. The part of the formula that deals with debt will be ignored.
c-1. In this case, the debt-equity ratio is 2. Therefore, debt equals 2 while equity is 1. The value of the firm becomes 3. There is need to substitute these values in the original formula while other variables remain constant.
c-2. In this scenario, the debt-equity ratio is 1. Thus, equity is 1 and debt is also 1. The value of the company changes to 2. These new values would be substituted in the formula in order to obtain the new cost of equity.
c-3. since the debt-equity ratio is 0, therefore, the cost of equity equals 0.
a. The company's cost of equity capital is 8.6014%. b. The company's unlevered cost of equity capital is 5.8729%. c-1. If the debt-equity ratio were 2, the cost of equity would be 8.6788%. c-2. If the debt-equity ratio were 1.0, the cost of equity would be 8.8894%. c-3. If the debt-equity ratio were zero, the cost of equity would be 5.8729%.
a. The formula to calculate the cost of equity capital is: Cost of Equity = WACC - (Debt/Equity) * (WACC - Cost of Debt) * (1 - Tax Rate). So, by plugging in the given values, we get Cost of Equity = 9.1% - 0.6 * (9.1% - 6.4%) * (1 - 0.22) = 9.1% - 0.6 * 2.7% * 0.78 = 9.1% - 0.4986% = 8.6014%.
b. The unlevered cost of equity capital can be calculated using the formula: Unlevered Cost of Equity = Cost of Equity / (1 + (Debt/Equity) * (1 - Tax Rate)). So, by plugging in the given values, we get Unlevered Cost of Equity = 8.6014% / (1 + 0.6 * 0.78) = 8.6014% / 1.468 = 5.8729%.
c-1. If the debt-equity ratio were 2, the new cost of equity can be calculated using the same formula as in part a. By plugging in the new debt-equity ratio, we get Cost of Equity = 9.1% - 2 * (9.1% - 6.4%) * (1 - 0.22) = 9.1% - 2 * 2.7% * 0.78 = 9.1% - 0.4212% = 8.6788%.
c-2. If the debt-equity ratio were 1.0, the new cost of equity can be calculated using the same formula as in part a. By plugging in the new debt-equity ratio, we get Cost of Equity = 9.1% - 1.0 * (9.1% - 6.4%) * (1 - 0.22) = 9.1% - 1.0 * 2.7% * 0.78 = 9.1% - 0.2106% = 8.8894%.
c-3. If the debt-equity ratio were zero (meaning no debt), the new cost of equity would be the same as the unlevered cost of equity calculated in part b, which is 5.8729%.
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Answer: Greenwashing
Explanation:
Greenwashing is the process of giving out a false impression or misleading the public about how the product of a company are more environmentally friendly. Companies have used greenwashing in commercials and press releases emphasizing their pollution minimization efforts and clean energy but in reality, the firm may not have a genuine commitment to environmental friendliness. Companies that make such claims are embroiled in greenwashing.
For example, a company might claim that their goods are made from recycled materials and this may be false. This is greenwashing.
Answer:
The depreciation expense for Year 1 is $9880
Explanation:
The cost of equipment to be recorded in the books is the price at which it was purchased and the cost incurred to bring it to intended use that is the installation cost. Thus, the cost of the equipment in the books will be recorded as,
Equipment = 88000 + 4000 = $84000
The insurance and maintenance are recurring expenses and are not capitalized.
The depreciation rate under units of production method is,
Depreciation rate = (cost - salvage value) / estimated useful life in units
Depreciation rate = (84000 - 8000) / 100000 = $0.76 per unit
The depreciation expense for Year 1 = 0.76 * 13000 = $9880
Answer:
$10,920
Explanation:
Cost of equipment = List price of equipment + Cost of installation and testing
$88,000 + $4,000 = $92,000
Salvage value = $8,000
Depreciation cost of equipment = Cost of equipment - salvage value
$92,000 - $8,000 = $84,000
Estimated unit of production = 100,000 units
Year 1 units produced = 13,000 units
Depreciation = $84,000 * 13,000 / 100,000
= $10,920
Answer:
Increase in Variable costs= $45,000
Explanation:
Giving the following information:
Fixed expenses are $521,000 per month. The company is currently selling 7,000 units per month. Management is considering using a new component that would increase the unit variable cost by $6. Since the new component would increase the features of the company's product, the marketing manager predicts that monthly sales would increase by 500 units.
Increase in Variable costs= 7500 * 6= 45,000
Answer:
$1.20
Explanation:
Variable cost per pillar is $0.80, there is demand of pillar for 15000 by an outside customer. The selling cost is around $0.40. The total variable cost is $1.20, this is minimum transfer price that can be set by the supplier.
c. $0 gain or loss; $60,000 basis.
d. $20,000 gain; $50,000 basis.
e. $30,000 gain; $60,000 basis.
Answer:
a. $0 gain or loss; $30,000 basis.
Explanation:
Since the partnership is being liquidated, Landis doesn't have to recognize any gain or loss resulting from the liquidation because the cash amount that he is receiving is less than his partnership interest. The asset's basis = $120,000 - $90,000 (cash) = $30,000, regardless of its current market value or prior basis.
Answer:
Explanation:
Return on investment (ROI) can be defined as a performance measure used to evaluate the efficiency of an investment or to compare the efficiency of a number of investments.
The ability to calculate return on investment is particularly valuable for any business regardless of its size or industry. by calculating ROI, an individual can understand how well their business is doing and which areas needs improvement.
Every business decision requires knowldge of ROI, so as to optimize profitability. Yes it is acceptable to loose profit of one product for the sale of a profitable product because the gain that would be derived by selling an extremely profitable products is better for the company that the gain one product will derive. Afterall, every company wants to increase profitability.