Answer:
Explanation: Employers have generally always found methods to monitor their employees. As software and tech advancements continue at break-neck speeds, employee monitoring is changing.
Software and tech platforms are being used to gather information on employees. Artificial Intelligence and Machine Learning (AI/ML) technologies used in these platforms are able to measure and analyze workforce performance. The use of data related to employees is referred to as Human Resource Analytics (HRA), or people analytics. There are many reasons to monitor employee behavior at work. For smaller businesses, the main reason for employee monitoring is to make sure that there is no unethical or illegal activity in the workplace while ensuring that technology provided is being used for the purpose it was intended. Practicing ethical employee monitoring reduces many unethical and illegal behaviors that cause small businesses to lose money. Monitoring encourages employees that would otherwise act immorally to act in an expected manner.Sometimes, there is more than enough stress at work. Employees may have to meet tight deadlines, deal with coworkers, and change work habit or style due to leadership changes. The constant monitoring of employee activities creates even more stress. If surveillance is felt to be a form of spying by employees, they will develop a feeling of mistrust from their employer. This feeling of being constantly watched will more than likely create an uncomfortable work environment and likely to decline performance .
b. What is the company's unlevered cost of equity capital?
c-1. What would the cost of equity be if the debt-equity ratio were 2?
c-2. What would the cost of equity be if the debt-equity ratio were 1.0?
c-3. What would the cost of equity be if the debt-equity ratio were zero?
Answer: a. WACC = Ke(E/V} + kd(D/V)(1-T)
9.1 = ke(100/160) + 6.4(60/160)(1-0.22)
9.1 = ke(0.625) + 2.4(0.78)
9.1 = 0.625ke + 1.872
9.1-1.872 = 0.625ke
7.228 = 0.625ke
ke = 7.228/0.625
ke = 11.56%
b. WACC = Ke(E/V)
9.1 = ke(100/160)
9.1 = 0.625ke
ke = 9.1/0.625
ke = 14.56%
c-1. WACC = Ke(E/V} + kd(D/V)(1-T)
9.1 = ke(1/3) + 6.4(2/3)(1-0.22)
9.1 = 0.3333ke + 3.328
9.1 - 3.328 = 0.3333ke
5.772 = 0.3333ke
ke = 5.772/0.3333
ke = 17.32%
c-2. 9.1 = ke(1/2) + 6.4(1/2)(1-0.22)
9.1 = 0.5ke + 2.496
9.1 - 2.496 = 0.5ke
6.604 = 0.5ke
ke = 6.604/0.5
ke = 13.21%
c-3. 9.1 = ke (0/0) + kd (0/)
ke = 0%
Explanation:
a. in the a part of the question, the debt-equity ratio was 0.6 ie 60/100. Thus, the value of the firm equals 160. The figures given in the question were substituted in the formula. Cost of equity was not provided, therefore, it becomes the subject of the formula. The variables are defined as follows:
ke = Cost of equity = ?
kd = Cost of debt = 6.4%
E = Value of equity = 100
D = Value of debt = 60
V = Value of the firm ie E + D = 100 + 60 = 160
T = Tax rate = 22% = 0.22
b. In this part of the question, only equity would be considered since we are calculating unlevered cost of equity. The part of the formula that deals with debt will be ignored.
c-1. In this case, the debt-equity ratio is 2. Therefore, debt equals 2 while equity is 1. The value of the firm becomes 3. There is need to substitute these values in the original formula while other variables remain constant.
c-2. In this scenario, the debt-equity ratio is 1. Thus, equity is 1 and debt is also 1. The value of the company changes to 2. These new values would be substituted in the formula in order to obtain the new cost of equity.
c-3. since the debt-equity ratio is 0, therefore, the cost of equity equals 0.
a. The company's cost of equity capital is 8.6014%. b. The company's unlevered cost of equity capital is 5.8729%. c-1. If the debt-equity ratio were 2, the cost of equity would be 8.6788%. c-2. If the debt-equity ratio were 1.0, the cost of equity would be 8.8894%. c-3. If the debt-equity ratio were zero, the cost of equity would be 5.8729%.
a. The formula to calculate the cost of equity capital is: Cost of Equity = WACC - (Debt/Equity) * (WACC - Cost of Debt) * (1 - Tax Rate). So, by plugging in the given values, we get Cost of Equity = 9.1% - 0.6 * (9.1% - 6.4%) * (1 - 0.22) = 9.1% - 0.6 * 2.7% * 0.78 = 9.1% - 0.4986% = 8.6014%.
b. The unlevered cost of equity capital can be calculated using the formula: Unlevered Cost of Equity = Cost of Equity / (1 + (Debt/Equity) * (1 - Tax Rate)). So, by plugging in the given values, we get Unlevered Cost of Equity = 8.6014% / (1 + 0.6 * 0.78) = 8.6014% / 1.468 = 5.8729%.
c-1. If the debt-equity ratio were 2, the new cost of equity can be calculated using the same formula as in part a. By plugging in the new debt-equity ratio, we get Cost of Equity = 9.1% - 2 * (9.1% - 6.4%) * (1 - 0.22) = 9.1% - 2 * 2.7% * 0.78 = 9.1% - 0.4212% = 8.6788%.
c-2. If the debt-equity ratio were 1.0, the new cost of equity can be calculated using the same formula as in part a. By plugging in the new debt-equity ratio, we get Cost of Equity = 9.1% - 1.0 * (9.1% - 6.4%) * (1 - 0.22) = 9.1% - 1.0 * 2.7% * 0.78 = 9.1% - 0.2106% = 8.8894%.
c-3. If the debt-equity ratio were zero (meaning no debt), the new cost of equity would be the same as the unlevered cost of equity calculated in part b, which is 5.8729%.
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Answer:
Equals the increase in total benefits from consuming the unit.
Explanation:
This is defined as a maximum amount a consumer is willing to pay for an additional good or service.
It is also the additional satisfaction or utility that consumer receives when the additional good or service is purchased. The marginal benefit for a consumer tends to decreases as consumption of the good or service increases.
In the business world, the marginal benefit for producers is often referred to as marginal revenue.
Answer:
The flexible budget variances are attached.
Overall, the variance was favorable. The actual results in net income produced a favorable variance of $275.
Explanation:
A budget variance is the difference between the actual amount and the budgeted.
It is favorable when the actual income is greater than the budgeted income or when the actual expense is less than the budgeted expense. Income becomes favorable if more actual income had been generated than actually projected. And if actual expense is more than budgeted, then the expense line item records unfavorable variance.
Variance analysis is always employed to gauge performance. After analysis, the variances are investigated for course correction, as the case may be. Favorable outcomes are encouraged while unfavorable outcomes are discouraged.
Answer:
1) ROI= 20%
2) ROI=15%
3) ROI = 35%
Explanation:
ROI is the proportion of capital invested that is earned as net operating income. It calculated as
Return on Investment = Net income/Average operating asset
= 150,000/750,000 × 100 = 20%
2.
ROI with a 50% increase in sales and 200% increase in average assets
ROI = (150%× 150,000)/(200%× 750,000)× 100= 15%
3.
ROI wth a 1,000,000 increase in sales
ROI = ( 150,000+200,000)/(250,000+ 750,000)× 100=35%
Answer
1) ROI= 20%
2) ROI=15%
3) ROI = 35%
The company's ROI for the different scenarios were calculated to be 20%, 60% and 35% respectively.
The Return on Investment (ROI) can be calculated by dividing the Net Operating Income by the Average Operating Assets and is typically expressed as a percentage. ROI = (Net Operating Income / Average Operating Assets) × 100
For Requirement 1, with a Net Operating Income of $150,000 and Average Operating Assets of $750,000, the ROI is (150000/750000) × 100 = 20%.
For Requirement 2, if sales and Net Operating Income increase by 50% and 200% respectively, with no increase in Average Operating Assets, the new Income becomes 150,000 * 3 (because of the 200% increase) = $450,000. Therefore, the new ROI becomes (450000/750000) × 100 = 60%.
For Requirement 3, if sales increase by $1,000,000, requiring an increase in Average Operating Assets by $250,000, with a resulting $200,000 increase in Net Operating Income, the new Net Operating Income becomes $150,000 + $200,000 = $350,000 and the new Average Operating Assets becomes $750,000 + $250,000 = $1,000,000. Therefore, the new ROI becomes (350000/1000000) × 100 = 35%.
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Answer:
The answer is =5.91%
Explanation:
N(Number of periods) = 7 years
I/Y(Yield to maturity) = 6.6percent
PV(present value or market price) = $962
PMT( coupon payment) = ?
FV( Future value or par value) = $1,000.
We are using a Financial calculator for this.
N= 7; I/Y = 6.6; PV = -962; FV= $1,000; CPT PMT= $59.05
Therefore, the coupon rate of the bond is of the bond is $59.05/1000
=5.91%
Depletion is the process of allocating the cost of natural resources to the period when it is consumed.
Depletion can be regarded the lowering down in the level of quantity of a thing or an element, generally due to consumption, in such a way that a few costs are incurred upon such lowered quantity-levels.
In simple words, depletion can be regarded as the incurring of costs upon the reduction of a quantity of something. In the above case, the quantity of natural resources is reduced, causing depletion.
Hence, option A holds true regarding depletion.
Learn more about depletion here:
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