In a generator, mechanical energy is converted into which of the following? A.an electromagnet
B.a moving rod
C.a magnetic field
D.electrical energy
Answers
bicycle pedals to turn the shaft, and electricity comes out.
Mechanical energy in ===> electrical energy out.
Answer:
eletrical ENERGY
Explanation:
D.
Related Questions
Which of the following is true about the action and reaction force referred in Newton's Third Law of Motion? a. I. They have equal magnitude but directed in opposite direction. b. II. They act on the same object simultaneously. c. III. They act on different bodies. d. IV. They act simultaneously.
8. John has to hit a bottle with a ball to win a prize. He throws a 0.4 kg ball with a velocity of 18 m/s. It hits a 0.2 kg bottle, and the bottle flies forward at 25 m/s. How fast is the ball traveling after hitting the bottle?
Bumper of a stationary bumper car. The momentum of the stationary car increases. Which happens to the momentum of the moving bumper car? It decreases. It stays the same. It is converted to inertia.
The potentially dangerous part of the electromagnetic spectrum is produced to generate power with nuclear energy A. Gamma Rays B.Radio Waves C.Microwaves D. Infrared Rays
Answers
Here they are in my own words:
1). The sum of the voltage drops around any closed loop in a circuit is zero.
2). The sum of the currents at any single point in a circuit is zero.
1 Kirchhoff's current law:
it states that the sum of all currents flowing in all conductors that meet at single point is zero..
2 Kirchhoff's voltage law:
it states that the algebraic sum of all voltages around any closed network is zero...
Answers
Answer:
1.Cp₁ = 1.2 J/g.⁰C
Explanation:
For new material:
m₁ = 25 g
T₁ = 80⁰C
specific heat of water = Cp₁
For water :
m₂ = 100 g
T₂ = 20⁰C
The final temperature T=24⁰C
We know that specific heat of water Cp₂ = 4.187 kJ/kg.K
The heat lost new material = Heat gain by Water
m₁ Cp₁ ( T₁ - T ) = m₂ Cp₂ (T- T₂)
25 x Cp₁ (80- 24 ) = 100 x 4.817 (24 - 20 )
Cp₁ x 56 = 4 x 4.187 x 4
Cp₁ = 1.19 kJ/kg.K
Cp₁ = 1.2 J/g.⁰C
Answers
Here are the following choices:
A) at either A or B.
B) midway between A and B.
C) 1/3 of the distance from A to B.
D) 1/4 of the distance from A to B.
E) 1/ times the distance from A to B.
Final answer:
The kinetic energy of a mass oscillating on a vertical spring is at a minimum when the object is at the extreme points of its motion. This is because the object has momentarily stopped moving, leading to zero kinetic energy. All the energy is instead stored as potential energy in the spring.
Explanation:
In the case of a mass oscillating on a vertical spring, the kinetic energy of the object is at a minimum when the object is at its extreme points, i.e., when it is at points 'a' or 'b'. This is because, at these positions, the object momentarily comes to rest before reversing its direction, thereby having a velocity (and hence kinetic energy), which is proportional to the square of the velocity, of zero. The energy at these points is mainly stored in the spring as potential energy.
At these extreme points, we have a situation where the potential energy (U) is maximum and the kinetic energy (K) is equal to zero. At the midpoint position x = 0, the entire energy is kinetic while the potential energy in the spring is zero, which suggests that the kinetic energy is minimum at the extreme positions.
This property of kinetic and potential energy fluctuating between each other is a common characteristic of simple harmonic motion.
Learn more about Kinetic Energy here:
#SPJ3
Answers
Final velocity of Cheetah(V2) = 70 mi/hr
Time for acceleration(T) = 3 seconds.
We know the formula
Accelaration(A) = Velocity/Time
So
A = (V2 -V1)/T
= (70 -0)/3
= 70/3
= 23.33mph/sec
So the accelaration of the Cheetah is 23.33 mph/sec.
Answers
Buoyant force is equal to the weight of the total amount of liquid displaced by an object when submerged partially or completely in the fluid. This means that if an object that has a volume of 2m³ has 50% (1m³) of its volume submerged in water, the buoyant force will be equal to the weight of 1 m³ of water, this is about 1000kg.
With this in mind, the buoyant force will be equal to the weight of the amount of fluid that has the same total volume as the object when the object is completely submerged, this is to say, it has its total volume under the fluid.
Answers
between the students. It's just a hunch.
Here's the formula for the force of gravity between 2 masses:
Force of gravity = G · m₁ · m₂ / D²
Take the numbers given in the question, write them into the formula,
and solve it for 'D'.
If you just want the answer and don't care to see the work,
then skip to the bottom line now.
To see every step along the way, keep reading:
' F ' ' G ' ' m₁ ' ' m₂ '
3.2 x 10⁻⁸ nt = (6.67 x 10⁻¹¹ nt-m²/kg²) (50 kg) (60 kg) / D²
3.2 x 10⁻⁸ nt = (6.67 x 10⁻¹¹ x 50 x 60) (nt-m²) / D²
D² = (6.67 x 10⁻¹¹ x 50 x 60) (nt-m²) / (3.2 x 10⁻⁸ nt)
D² = 6.253125 m²
D = √6.253125 m² = 2.5 m (rounded)