Answer:
yes
Step-by-step explanation:
a parallelogram is a 4 sided figure
(3x - 8) - (x2 - 5x - 2)
Answer:
-x^2 +8x -6
Step-by-step explanation:
Distribute the minus sign and collect terms.
(3x -8) -(x^2 -5x -2)
= 3x -8 -x^2 +5x +2
= -x^2 +8x -6
Slope is -1, y-intercept is -3, dashed line, shaded above
Slope is 1, y-intercept is -3, dashed line, shaded below
Slope is 1, y-intercept is -3, dashed line, shaded above
Answer:
Slope -1, y intercept +5.
Bold line, shaded above
Step-by-step explanation:
x + y - 5 ≥ 0
y ≥ -x + 5
In the second version, you are given five attempts, but the target is smaller, and you estimate that your probability of
success on any given throw is 0.05. The prizes for the two versions of the game are the same, and you are willing to
assume that the outcomes of your throws are independent. Which version of the game should you choose? (Hint: In
the first version of the game, the probability that you do not get the prize is the probability that you fail on all three
attempts.)
Answer:
And the probability of loss with the first wersion is 0.729
And the probability of loss with the first wersion is 0.774
As we can see the best alternative is the first version since the probability of loss is lower than the probability of loss on version 2.
Step-by-step explanation:
Previous concepts
The binomial distribution is a "DISCRETE probability distribution that summarizes the probability that a value will take one of two independent values under a given set of parameters. The assumptions for the binomial distribution are that there is only one outcome for each trial, each trial has the same probability of success, and each trial is mutually exclusive, or independent of each other".
Solution to the problem
Alternative 1
Let X the random variable of interest, on this case we now that:
The probability mass function for the Binomial distribution is given as:
Where (nCx) means combinatory and it's given by this formula:
We can find the probability of loss like this P(X=0) and if we find this probability we got this:
And the probability of loss with the first wersion is 0.729
Alternative 2
Let Y the random variable of interest, on this case we now that:
The probability mass function for the Binomial distribution is given as:
Where (nCx) means combinatory and it's given by this formula:
We can find the probability of loss like this P(Y=0) and if we find this probability we got this:
And the probability of loss with the first wersion is 0.774
As we can see the best alternative is the first version since the probability of loss is lower than the probability of loss on version 2.
answer: 83/100
there you go!!!!
Hope it helps
Create a “fraction” with 0.83 in the numerator and 1.0 in the denominator:
0.83/1.0
Move the decimal point in 0.83 two places to the right to turn it into a whole number; move the decimal point in the denominator the same number of places. Do this one decimal place at a time:
0.83/1.0=8.3/10.0=83/100
At this point, you can drop the decimal points and trailing zeros in both the numerator and denominator.
1/a =6/18